Check your vocabulary for Law – Test your criminal slang

Test your Criminal Slang
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HOW GOOD ARE you at detective work? Below there are four conversations. The conversations include 14 slang words. The definitions of the words are explained under “Descriptions”. Read the conversations and use the context to match the words to the definitions.
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Conversation 1
Have you heard about Henry?
No. What?
He’s been nicked.
You’re joking. What happened?
He was blagging a bank with his brother and somebody grassed on them.
Who’s the nark?
Who knows? Henry’s got a lot of enemies.
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Conversation 2
What did he get?
Eight years.
Eight years inside! I thought you said he had a good brief.
Well, he thought he did.
Where’s he going to do it?
Isle of Wight.
Oh no. The screws in there are the worst in the world.
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Conversation 3
So, what have you got for me?
Rolex watches. Two hundred of them.
Are they hot?
What do you think? Would I come to a fence like you with them if they weren’t?
Leave them with me tonight and I’ll give you a price for them in the morning.
Leave it out. Do I look like a mug?
Sorry?
I’m surprised at you, trying a scam like that. I wasn’t born yesterday. I want a price now.
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Conversation 4
At one time I had 50 people selling heroin in clubs around the city.
Really? Didn’t you have any problem with the law?
No, they were all bent in those days. A bit of cash every month and they were happy.
So why did you open the supermarkets?
Originally it was a way to launder the drugs money. In the end it became more interesting to be legitimate.
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DEFINITIONS
1. _________= a buyer of stolen property.
2. _________= a lawyer.
3. _________= a person who is easily deceived.
4. _________= a prison guard.
5. _________= a trick.
6. __________= an informer
7. __________= corrupt.
8. __________= in prison
9. __________= stolen
10._________ = the police
11. _to nick___ = to arrest .
12. _________ = to hold up, to rob using weapons.
13. _________ = to inform the police
14. _________= to transfer illegally gained money to a normal bank account.
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ANSWERS
1.a fence - 2. a brief - 3. a mug - 4. a screw - 5. a scam - 6. a nark - 7. bent - 8. inside - 9. hot - 10. the law - 11. to nick - 12. to blag - 13. to grass - 14. to launder money

Check your vocabulary for Law – Politics

P o l i t i c s
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THERE ARE FIFTEEN words connected with politics in the box. Use them to complete the sentences – in some cases you will need to make them plural. The first one has been done for you as an example:
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abstention – budget – consensus – constitution – devolution – house – leader – leak – legislation – membership – policy – poll – recess – spokesman – veto
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1. Germany has a federal __constitution___.
2. A government ____________ revealed that discussions had been concluded on the treaty.
3. According to the latest opinion ___________ the Prime Minister is more unpopular than ever.
4. Austria’s application for __________ of the EU was successful.
5. Many Scots would like to see more __________ of power from Westminster.
6. Parliament has introduced __________ to control the sale of drugs.
7. The bill was passed by both ____________ and sent to the President for signature.
8. The crisis happened during the summer ____________ and Parliament had to be recalled.
9. The government is investigating the latest _________ of documents relating to the spy trial.
10.The government is running a tight monetary __________to try to control inflation.
11. The _______ of the opposition criticized the Prime Minister for his failure to act.
12. The motion was carried by 200 votes to 150; there were 60 ________.
13. The President has the power of __________ over bills passed by Congress.
14. There is a ___________ between all the major parties about what we should do now.
15. The minister has put forward a _________ aimed at slowing down the economy.
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Extension 1: All the words above are nouns. Some of them have verb forms. What are they? The first one has been done for you as an example.
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1. an abstention – to abstain
2. a budget –
3. a devolution –
4. a leader –
5. a leak –
6. legislation –
7. a poll –
8. a veto –
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Extension 2: Write three sentences for the verbs. Don’t write the verbs: leave gaps as in the first exercise on the worksheet. Give the sentences to another student as a test.
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ANSWERS:
1. constitution – 2. spokesman – 3. poll – 4. membership – 5. devolution – 6. legislation – 7. houses – 8.recess – 9. leak – 10. policy – 11. leader - 12. abstentions – 13. Veto – 14. consensus – 15. budget

Check your vocabulary for Law – Multiple meanings

Multiple Meanings
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SOME WORDS HAVE more than one meaning. For example a party is a person involved in a legal dispute (“One of the parties to the dispute has died”) but it is also a political organization (“Lincoln was a member of the Republican Party”)... Can you identify the following eight words? Two or three meanings are given for each word.
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1. This word means:
__a meeting or a series of meetings: “There is a Democratic _____in August”.
__an international treaty: “All the countries agreed to a new arms _____.”
__the way something is usually done: “We have a________ that the President enters first.”
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2. This word means:
__money invested or borrowed: “You don’t pay off the _______ until the end of the loan period.”
__A person or company represented by agents: “The agent has come to London to see his ____”.
__person responsible for something: “Whose name appears on the contract as ____?”
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3. This word means:
__something which is for sale: “This _______ is very attractively priced.”
__a section of a legal agreement: “if you look at ______7 of the contract you’ll see why.”
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4. This word means:
__ an area of land: “The _______ is 100 square kilometers.”
__ property left by a dead person: “His _______ was worth US1.5m.
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5. This word means:
__proper, correct: “We will not release the documents without _______ procedure being followed”
__owed: “The next payment is ________ on October 5th.
__ expected to arrive: “He isn’t _______ until seven o’clock.
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6. This word means:
__to say something clearly: “I ______ now that my client is completely innocent.”
__independent country: “All citizens have obligations to the ____.”
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7. This word means:
__special attention: “I took a particular ______ in this case.”
__money paid for the use of money: “What is the current rate of ____?”
__ownership of shares in a company: “He has a majority _________ in a newspaper.”
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8. This word means:
__to put into words or diagrams: “You must _______ the idea more clearly.”
__very fast: “I’ll send the papers to you ______.”
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ANSWERS:
1. convention – 2. principal – 3. article – 4. estate – 5. due – 6. state – 7. interest – 8. express

Check your vocabulary for Law – Phrasal Verbs

PHRASAL VERBS
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PHRASAL VERBS ARE common in conversational English. Read the definition below and use the phrasal verbs to complete the sentences. You will have to use some verbs more than once, and you may have to change the form of the verb to fit the grammar of the sentence. The first one has been done for you as an example:
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Verbs and Definitions
1. break down: to stop because of failure
2. break in: to go into a building by force in order to steal
3. break off: to stop a discussion or negotiation
4. break up: to divide (a company) into separate units
5. bring forward: to change to an earlier date
6. hand down: t five to the next generation through inheritance
7. hold up: (1) to rob from a bank or vehicle using weapons, (2) to stay at a high level, (3) to delay
8. pass off: to pretend something is not what it is to cheat a customer
9. put down: to pay as a deposit
10. put into: invest
11. take in: to trick, to deceive
12. take over: (1) to start to do something in place of someone else, (2) t buy a company
13. wind up: (1) to end a meeting, (2) to put a company into liquidation
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Exercise
1. The company ACT has been __broken up_____ into seven autonomous divisions.
2. He had a factory which manufactured cheap sports clothes which he ____________
3. He _______ all of us __________ with his promise of quick profits and low risks.
4. he was caught ___________ to a clothes shop an night.
5. he ___________ the meeting with a vote of thanks to the chairman.
6. I’m very busy on Wednesday: can I __________ our meeting _________ to Tuesday?
7. John is leaving in June and there will be a gap of one month before the new manager.
8. Management and unions could not agree and negotiations _________ at midnight yesterday.
9. Payment will be ____________ until the contract is signed.
10. Shares in ACT have increased in price by 35 pence with the news that they are to be __________ by Giant PLC.
11. The car was still under guarantee when it ____________.
12.The company was insolvent and the court ordered it to be ___________
13. The share price ____________ well through the summer and then fell in September.
14. They are accused of __________ a Security Van and stealing U$ 45.000.
15. This watch was ___________ to me from my great-grandfather.
16. When he lost his job he ___________ his savings ___________ into opening a design studio.
17. You have to _________ U$200 ___________ now and then pay U$ 100 a month for eighteen months.
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Extension: Work with a partner. Test each other: One person closes the book, the other asks questions. For example: “Tell me a verb which means ‘to divide a company into separate units’”.
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ANSWERS:
1. broken up – 2. passed off – 3. took…in – 4. breaking into – 5. wound up – 6. bring … forward – 7. takes over – 8. broke off – 9. held up – 10. taken over – 11. broke down – 12. wound up – 13. held up – 14. Holding up – 15. handed down – 16. put…. into – 17. put… down.

Check your vocabulary for Law – Latin pair-up

Latin pair-up
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MANY LATIN EXPRESSIONS are used in British law, for example, corpus delicti is the proof that a crime has been committed. Match words from the two columns, A and B, to make 15 legal expressions which fit the definitions in the list. Each expression should consist of a word from box A followed by a word from Box B. The first one has been done for you as an example.
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Column A
Bona
Caveat
Compos
Doli
Habeas
Inter
Ipso
Obiter
Per
Prima
Sui
Toties
Vice
Viva
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Column B
Alia
Capax
Capita
Corpus
Dicta
Emptor
Facie
Facto
Fide
Generis
Mentis
Quoties
Versa
Vivos
Voce
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Definitions
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1. In good faith - ______bona fide_____
2. Among other things ______________
3. The buyer is responsible for checking a purchase ________________
4. Things which are said in passing _________
5. In the opposite way _________
6. By speaking ___________
7. Sane _____________
8. In a class of its own ________________
9. As often as necessary ______________
10. Between living people _____________
11. A legal remedy against wrongful imprisonment __________
12. By this fact, in itself ___________
13. Capable of crime _____________
14. For each person ______________
15. As things seem at first _______________
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Extension: Find three more Latin expressions in the dictionary and teach them to other students in the class.
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ANSWERS:
1. bona fide – 2. Inter alia – 3. caveat emptor – 4. obiter dicta – 5. vice versa – 6. viva voce – 7. compos mentis – 8. sui generis – 9. toties quoties – 10. inter vivos - 11. habeas corpus – 12. ipso facto – 13. doli capax – 14. per capita – 15. prima facie.

Check your vocabulary for Law – Verbs 4

Mixed tenses
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ALL THE VERBS in the box relate to legal matters. Use them to complete the sentences. You may have to change the forms of the verbs to fit the grammar of the sentences. The first one has been done for you as an example:
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arrange – blackmail – convict – corroborate – exonerate – find – forfeit – infringe – overturn – prohibit – promise – recover – refrain – sentence – sue
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1. He was asked to give an undertaking to __refrain___ from political activity.
2. My client intends to appeal and I am sure that a higher court will _______ the sentence.
3. I can _________ Mr. Waterman’s alibi. At the time of the theft I saw him in Brighton.
4. The judge _________ him to three years imprisonment.
5. After the accident he _________ the company for U$50,000 in damages.
6. She was _______________ of manslaughter and sent to prison for eight years.
7. If you decide not to buy you will _________ your 25% deposit.
8. The court has _________ him guilty on all charges.
9. We believe that this production __________ our copyright as detailed below.
10. The company went out of business and the original investment was never ________.
11. We discovered that his secretary was ___________ him with certain details about his private life.
12. You _________ to pay by August and it’s now September. What’s your explanation?
13. The law _________ the sale of alcohol to minors.
14. All the files are ___________ in alphabetical order, so it’s very easy to find.
15. The judge ___________ the driver from all responsibility for the accident.
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Extension: Choose five sentences and dictate them to a partner.
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ANSWERS:
1. refrain – 2. overturn – 3. corroborate – 4. sentenced - 5. sued - 6. convicted - 7. forfeit – 8. found - 9. infringes - 10. recovered – 11. blackmailing – 12. promised - 13. prohibits - 14. arranged - 15. exonerated

Check your vocabulary for Law – Adjectives 2

ADJECIVES
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ALL THE ADJECTIVES below are connected with legal matters. Use them to complete the sentences. The first one has been done for you.
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biased – competent – conditional – domestic – dual – equal – final – guilty – heavy – legal – official – ostensible – reciprocal – unlimited – willful
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1. They had the motive, the means and the opportunity – they’re obviously ____guilty____.
2. She has _______ nationality: her parents are Irish but she was born in Italy.
3. It was a serious case and the looters received a _______ sentence.
4. On investigation we discovered that his _________ partner had no official connection with the business.
5. I am afraid that this court is not _________ to deal with this matter. You will have to go to a higher court.
6. Perhaps you do not agree with the company’s actions, but they were perfectly ____________.
7. Of course, you must understand that all this is _________ on your accepting our price.
8. Money is no problem: the bank has given us ________ credit.
9. There is no excuse for this: you knew what you were doing: it is a case of ___________.
10. The company has not previously exported anything: we have only served the ___________.
11. You’ll never win the case with this judge – he’s completely ___________against you.
12. The agreement would be ____________: if you sold in our market we would expect the same rights in your market.
13. it must be an ________ statement; it’s signed by the Prime Minister.
14. This month, after twenty-five years, I will make the __________ payment and the house will bemine.
15. The law now states that male and female workers must have _______ pay.
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Extension: Choose five of the sentences and dictate them to a partner.
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ANSWERS:
1.guilty – 2.dual – 3.heavy – 4.ostensible – 5.competent – 6. legal – 7. conditional – 8.unlimited – 9. willful - 10. domestic – 11. biased – 12.reciprocal – 13. official – 14. final – 15. equal

Check your vocabulary for Law – Pronunciation 3

Past tense & Past participle
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REGULAR PAST TENSES and past participles are formed with suffix “ed”: walk, walked, walked. There are three different pronunciations of the “ed” at the end of the verb. Look at these examples and practice saying them.
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1. /t/ like the sound in trial - For example: expressed, tricked, helped
2. /d/ like the sound in dock – For example: accused, opened, claimed
3. /id/ like the sound in bid - For example: convicted, pleaded, acquitted
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Find the regular verbs in these sentences and underline them. Decide which of the three pronunciations is correct in each case. The first one has been done for you as an example:
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1. The clerk was disciplined for leaking the report to a newspaper. / ___d______
2. He claims he was discriminated against because of his color. /___________
3. The company is presumed to be still solvent. /___________
4. The market has not recovered from the rise in oil prices. /__________
5. The legislation was reformed to make court room procedures more straightforward. /______
6. The letters were dispatched today. /_________
7. The contract becomes null and void when these documents are surrendered. /________
8. He was blackmailed by his former secretary. /_________
9. His firm was blacklisted by the government. /_________
10. He promised to pay the money before the end of the month. /________
11. The gang swindled the bank out of U$1,5m. /________
12. He practiced as a solicitor for twenty-five years. /_______
13. The defendant is represented by his solicitor. /__________
14. The company has recorded another year of increased sales. /________
15. The court adjourned to allow the prosecution time to find the missing witnesses. /______
16. The recession caused hundreds of bankruptcies. /______
17. The judge sentenced him to two years in prison. /_______
18. The political prisoners were pardoned by the president. /________
19. He traded under the name “Eeziphitt”. /______
20. he was summoned to appear before the committee. /_______
21. The new building must be financed by the local authority. /_________
22. We based our calculations on last year’s turnover. /_______
23. The government has not published the figures. /_______
24. The agent is empowered to sell the property. /_______
25. The judge decided in favor of the plaintiff. /_______
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Extension: Work with a partner. Each person chooses five sentences and dictate them to the other. Take turns.
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ANSWERS:
1.d – 2.id – 3.d – 4.d – 5. t – 6. t – 7. d – 8.d – 9. id – 10. t – 11. d – 12. t – 13.- id – 14. id – 15. d – 16. d – 17.t – 18. d – 19. id – 20. d – 21. t – 22. t – 23. t – 24. d – 25. id

Typical Courtroom in the U.S.

Courtroom Cast of Characters

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All courts have the same set and cast of characters.
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JUDGE
The judge has many duties in connection with a trial. The judge must see that the trial is conducted in an orderly manner and according to prescribed rules and laws. This includes the legal process related to the selection of the jury, the presentation of evidence, the arguments of the lawyers, the instructions to the jury, and the rendering of the verdict.
At the conclusion of a criminal trial, the judge imposes the sentence.

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COURTROOM CLERK
The clerk sits to one side of the judge. The clerk is an officer of the court and records a summary of what happens in a case as well as orders made by the court during the trial and the verdict at the end of the trial. The clerk also administers the oath or affirmation to jurors and all witnesses before they testify and marks all exhibits when they are received in evidence.

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BAILIFF
A bailiff is a police officer who is charged with keeping order in the courtroom during a trial. The bailiff opens and closes the court each day and attends to the jury by sitting outside the jury room while the jury is deliberating on a verdict. Jurors should comply with requests of the bailiff while in the bailiff's charge.

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COURT REPORTER
The court reporter records, in shorthand or on a machine, everything that is spoken on the record in the courtroom. These notes may be transcribed if necessary and are a permanent record of the trial.

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COUNSEL
Counsel is the name used for the lawyer engaged in the trial. Both the plaintiff and the defendant have counsel.

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DEFENDANT (also called RESPONDENT)
The defendant is the person against whom the lawsuit (civil case) is brought or the person charged with an offense (criminal case).

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DEFENSE ATTORNEY OR PUBLIC DEFENDER
The defense attorney is the lawyer who defends the accused person. The 6th Amendment gives citizens accused of a crime (defendant/respondent) the right to a defense attorney. That means that if an accused person can't afford a defense attorney, the courts will provide one for free. The job of a defense attorney is to reach the best possible outcome for the client. To prepare for trial, they hire and manage investigators, gather information from witnesses, and study similar cases.

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PLAINTIFF
The plaintiff is the person who accuses another and brings the lawsuit to court.

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PROSECUTOR/PLAINTIFF'S ATTORNEY
In a criminal case, the prosecuting attorney's job is to reach the best possible outcome for the people of Michigan, including the victim of the crime. After the police arrest a person, the prosecuting attorney reviews the reason for arrest and determines the which law applies to the offenses the person committed. The prosecuting attorney files papers to the court listing what the person is charged with and how long the person might have to be in jail or prison if found guilty. Unless the person agrees that he or she is guilty, the case goes to trial. If that happens, the prosecuting attorney must show beyond a reasonable doubt that the person is guilty.

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WITNESS
A person who gives the jury information about the case. Both prosecutors and defense attorneys use witnesses to present evidence. Anyone from an expert scientist to a bystander witness can testify. Among the most important witnesses in a criminal trial are the accused and the complainant, the persons who actually saw the events, and the officers who investigated the crime. Witnesses called to the stand swear under oath to tell the truth. If they refuse to answer a question, the courts can hold them in "contempt" and punish them. Witnesses can, however, refuse to talk about certain private conversations protected by "privilege," such as those between a doctor and patient. The courts place some witnesses, who may be in danger, in a Witness Protection program.

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JURY
The jury listens to testimony from both the plaintiff and defendant's side and decides the verdict of the case. The Bill of Rights and the Constitution protect a citizens' right to trial by jury. A fair trial is synonymous with a jury trial. Most juries are made up of twelve randomly selected people. The jurors have the serious and limited responsibility of deciding on the facts of the case. They rely on only the information presented to them by the attorneys.
During the trial both attorneys present evidence to the jury to try and convince them of the defendant's guilt or innocence. Once the jury hears the case, they deliberate, or decide the case. Deliberation can last anywhere from ten minutes to ten weeks, depending on the case. The decision process is difficult. In a criminal case, all twelve jurors must agree on a verdict before it is presented to the judge.

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Criminal Case
In a criminal case, a jury must find the defendant "not guilty" unless the prosecution proves beyond a reasonable doubt that the defendant is guilty. Sometimes courts try to explain the phrase "beyond a reasonable doubt" in their own words, but its central meaning is just what the words say: the jury can convict a defendant only if the jury is persuaded, beyond any doubt that is reasonable, that the defendant is guilty.

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Civil Case
In a civil case, a jury must decide the case by the "preponderance of the evidence" . That means a person wins the case if that person's evidence is the most persuasive, even if it is only a little bit stronger than the other person's evidence.

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GRAND JURY
This is a group of people who decide whether or not there is enough evidence to formally accuse someone of a crime.

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FOREPERSON
The foreperson of the jury speaks on behalf of the entire jury.
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Courtroom Vocabulary Words
Acquittal: A legal determination that a person who has been charged with a crime is innocent.
Appeal: A request for a higher court to review a decision made by a lower court.
Arraignment: When the accused is brought before the court to hear the charges against him or her. They plead guilty or not guilty at this time.
Conviction: The result of a criminal trial in which a person is found guilty.
Cross-examination: The questioning of a witness by the lawyer for the opposing side.
Direct-examination: The first questioning in a trial of a witness by the lawyer who called that witness.
Indictment: An accusation of a crime, made against a person by a grand jury upon the request of a prosecutor.
Information: An accusation of a crime, made against a person by the prosecutor.
Mistrial: A trial that becomes invalid, is essentially canceled, because of a mistake in procedure.
Motion: How a lawyer asks the judge to make a decision.
Objection: The opposing side finds fault with the question being asked the witness.
Overruled: The judge, following an objection, decides the questions may continue.
Sustained: The judge, following an objection, agrees that the line of questioning should not continue.
Verdict: A verdict of guilty or not guilty is handed down by the jury.
Sentence: The punishment given to a person who has been convicted of a crime.
Your Honor: The way a judge is addressed in a courtroom.

Check your vocabulary for Law – Prepositions

Find the mistakes
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The twenty sentences in this exercise contain mistakes. The mistakes are all in the prepositions and there are three types:
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1. Missing preposition
2. Wrong preposition
3. Unnecessary preposition
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Find the mistakes and correct them.
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1. It says in the newspaper that he’s been evading of income tax.
2. The prosecution tried to discredit at the defense witness.
3. I am writing in behalf of Mr. and Mrs. Smith…
4. I would like to report of a theft.
5. He was awarded US 100,000 to compensate of the damages caused by the manufacturer.
6. The directors of the firm were accused insider trading.
7. If you don’t tell me you’ll be charged to withholding evidence.
8. In view of your failure to pay, I have instructed to my solicitors to start proceedings immediately.
9. We have referred your question at the tribunal and hope to have an answer for you in the next few days.
10. After six months in prison she will be eligible to parole.
11. The next national holiday falls in a Monday.
12. They decided to sue at the landlord for failure to maintain the property.
13. During the appeal he claimed that the original judge had been biased in favor to the plaintiff.
14. The defendant was negligent to carrying out his duties as a trustee.
15. The company was declared to be of a state of insolvency.
16. My client disagrees with clause 6 of the contract which expressly forbids to sales in the USA.
17. The judge ruled that her evidence was inadmissible and it was expunged the report.
18. Does the bill include of VAT or is that extra?
19. The judge acquitted to the husband but imposed a £250 fine on the wife.
20. He was found guilty of all charges and sentenced five years in prison.
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Extension: Write three sentences with deliberate mistakes in the prepositions. Check them with the teacher then show them to a partner to see if he or she can find the mistakes.
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ANWERS:
1. It says in the newspaper that he’s been evading income tax.
2. The prosecution tried to discredit the defense witness.
3. I am writing on behalf of Mr. and Mrs. Smith…
4. I would like to report a theft.
5. He was awarded US 100,000 to compensate for the damages caused by the manufacturer.
6. The directors of the firm were accused of insider trading.
7. If you don’t tell me you’ll be charged with withholding evidence.
8. In view of your failure to pay, I have instructed my solicitors to start proceedings immediately.
9. We have referred your question to the tribunal and hope to have an answer for you in the next few days.
10. After six months in prison she will be eligible for parole.
11. The next national holiday falls on a Monday.
12. They decided to sue the landlord for failure to maintain the property.
13. During the appeal he claimed that the original judge had been biased in favor of the plaintiff.
14. The defendant was negligent in carrying out his duties as a trustee.
15. The company was declared to be in a state of insolvency.
16. My client disagrees with clause 6 of the contract which expressly forbids sales in the USA.
17. The judge ruled that her evidence was inadmissible and it was expunged from the report.
18. Does the bill include VAT or is that extra?
19. The judge acquitted the husband but imposed a £250 fine on the wife.
20. He was found guilty of all charges and sentenced to five years in prison.

Check your vocabulary for Law – Name the Crime 2

Defense
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BELOW ARE 10 statements by defendants. Read the statements and say what crime has each one been accused of:
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1. “I arrived home late and found that I’d forgotten my keys. I didn’t want to wake my wife up, and I saw there was a ladder in the garden of the house next door. I got the ladder and climbed in. We’ve just moved house and I didn’t realize I was in the wrong street…
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2. “I was walking my dog when I saw the gun lying on the ground. I picked up – it was still warm – and at that moment I saw the body lying in the long grass. I went across to look and it was my business partner. That’s when the police arrived….
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3. “I opened the bank account in a false name as a way to help my employer pay less tax – it’s perfect legal. I kept meaning to tell him, but somehow I just forgot. I bought the villa in France with my own money. It was an inheritance…
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4. “OK, so there are a hundred and twenty-five copies of Four Weddings and a Funeral. That’s perfect true, but I had no intention of selling them. I’m a collector.
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5. “Well this obviously isn’t my suitcase. I’ve never seen these things before in my life. The monogram? Well, they are my initials, but that must be a coincidence. That’s probably how the two cases got mixed up. After all, JA aren’t very unusual initials. A photograph with me in it? My word, that’s incredible! It must be someone who knows me…
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6. “I didn’t know she was still alive, I thought she’d died in a car accident. I couldn’t believe it when I saw her walk into the room. Surely, you don’t think I did this just to get your money…?
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7. “You misunderstand me. When I offered him the money I meant it as a gift. I know that life can be difficult for a young man on a police salary, especially if he has a family, young children etcetera. It isn’t easy and I know that. I just wanted to help. I didn’t expect him to do anything in return…
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8. “After leaving the office I realized I’d forgotten my umbrella. I went back in to get it. When I went in I noticed that the photocopier was still turned on. It had been working very badly all day, and I decided to quickly see what was wrong with it before going home. I made a few copies of documents that were in the office; I didn’t even look at what I was copying. The machine seemed to be working much better. I put the copies in my briefcase – intending to use the other side as notepaper. I don’t believe in wasting paper. At the moment Mr. Sanders came out of his office…
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9. “I painted them for pleasure. I had no intention of deceiving people. I never said they were by other people. Yes, I did include the signatures of other artists but that’s because I wanted them to be perfect copies…
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10. “Mr. Wills sent me the money to help me in my business venture – I’m trying to start a design agency. He sent me checks every month for US 1,200. A couple of times he sent extra when I had special expenses. It was always understood that he would participate in the profits of the business when it was running. We didn’t write anything down, it was an oral agreement, the photographs I have of him with his secretary have no connection with these payments.
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Extension: Write a defense for another crime and show to other people in your class. See if they can guess what crime you are thinking of.
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ANSWERS:
1. burglary – 2. murder – 3. embezzlement or fraud – 4. piracy – 5. smuggling – 6. bigamy – 7. bribery - 8. espionage – 9. forgery – 10. blackmail

Check your vocabulary for Law – Useful Verbs 3

Mixed tenses
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ALL THE VERBS below relate to legal matters. Use them to complete the sentences. You may have to change the forms of the verbs to fit the grammar of the sentences*. The first one has been done for you as an example.
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advise – appeal – commit – disclaim – disclose – embezzle – establish – follow – impose – legislate – manipulate – offer – preclude – prevent – value
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1. He __disclaimed __ all knowledge of the robbery until £250,000 in cash was found in his house.
2. He is _________ us £100,000 for the house, which is £10,000 less than we wanted.
3. He says he’s innocent and he’s going to ___________ to the supreme court against the decision.
4. He was sent to prison for six months for __________ his client’s money.
5. I believe that they are __________ the accounts to make the company look more profitable.
6. In my opinion they’ll ___________ the business at about £2m.
7. Our solicitor has ___________ us to take the documents to the police.
8. Parliament has ___________ against the sale of drugs.
9. The bank has no right to _____________ details of my account to the tax office.
10. The business was ___________ in 1881.
11. The court has __________ the precedent set in the 1972 case.
12. The magistrate ___________ a fine of £150.
13. The gang had ___________ six robberies before they were caught.
14. They have change the locks on the building to ___________ the former managing director from going in.
15. This agreement does not __________ further agreements between these parties in the future.
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*Remember the five forms of English verbs, for example: take, takes, took, taken, taking.
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Extension: Choose five sentences and dictate to a partner.
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ANSWERS:
1. disclaimed – 2. offering – 3. appeal – 4. embezzling – 5. manipulating – 6. value – 7. advised - 8. legislated – 9. disclose – 10. established – 11. followe4 – 12. imposed – 13. committed - 14 prevent – 15 preclude.

Flight Academies in the U.S. (some)

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Epic Flight Academy
Main number: 386-409-5583Toll Free: 1.866.FLY.EPICFax: 386-409-5584Address: New Smyrna Beach Municipal Airport - KEVB600 Skyline DriveNew Smyrna Beach, Fl 32168Office: 386-409-5583 option 1Email: paula-davis@epicaviation.com
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U.S. Flight Academy
4850 Spartan DriveDenton, TX 76207
USAG is located at near Denton Municipal Airport (KDTO). To obtain more information on USAG, please contact us at any of the following:
Toll Free:1-866-383-2400
Voice: 940-383-2484
Fax: 940-381-5385
Email:fly@usflightacademy.com

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Paragon Flight Training
511 Danley Drive,
Fort Myers, Florida 33912
PH: (239) 274-3170
Fax: 239-274-3073
Web: www.paragonflight.com
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Delta Connection Academy (owned by Delta Airlines)
2700 Flightline AveSanford, FL, USA 32773
Toll Free: 1 (800) U-CAN-FLYPhone: (407) 330-7020Fax: (407) 323-3817E-mail: info@DeltaConnectionAcademy.com
International Students
Phone: +1 (407) 330-7020
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American Winds Flight Academy
Akron Fulton Airport (AKR)
1600 Triplett Boulevard
Akron, Ohio 44306
PH: (330) 733-2500
Fax: (330) 733-2501
http://www.teachmetofly.com/About_Us.html
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RAA – Regional Airline Academy
Email - infofl@raaflightschools.com 4710 E. Falcon Drive, Suite 110
Mesa, AZ 85215PH: (480) 830-0706
Fax:(480)-830-0691
Email - infofl@raaflightschools.com

FAA Phonetic and Morse Chart

A - Alpha
B - Bravo
C - Charlie
D - Delta
E - Echo
F - Foxtrot
G - Golf
H - Hotel

I - India
J - Juliet
K - Kilo

L - Lima

M -Mike
N - November
O - Oscar
P - Papa
Q - Quebec
R - Romeo
S - Sierra
T - Tango
U - Uniform
V - Victor
W - Whiskey

X - X ray
Y - Yankee
Z - Zulu

Instrument Flying Handbook for download

Title: Instrument Flying Handbook 2008
Published by the US Dpartment of Transportation - Federal Aviation Administration
link for download:

http://www.faagov/library/manuals/aviation/media/FAA-H-8083-15A.pdf

Common Aviation Acronyms, Abbreviations, Definitions and Jargon

AAA - American
AAATS - Australian Advanced Air Traffic Services
AAC - Aeronautical Administration Communication (a class of communication which supports administrative communication)
AAIB - Air Accident Investigation Branch of the Department of Transport. ( UK )
AAE - Above Airport Elevation.
AAL - Above Airport Level.
AAS - Advanced Automation System (the end systems for all FAA air traffic control, located at the ARTCCs)
ab initio - literally `from the beginning', elementary flying training.
abm abeam - an aircraft is abeam a point when that point is at ninety degrees left or right of the aircraft's track, but term usually used to indicate a general position rather than a specific point.
A/C - Aircraft.
AC - Air Canada.
ACARS - Aircraft Communication Adressing and Reporting System.
ACAS Airborne Collision and Avoidance System
ACC - Area Control Center.
ACCEL - Acceleration, Accelerate. Accelerate-Stop Distance - Calculated distance required for an aircraft to accelerate to V1, reject take-off and brake safely to a halt.
ACF Area Control Facility
ACFS Advanced Concepts Flight Simulator (a generic "glass cockpit")
ACFT - Aircraft.
ACK Acknowledge
ACMS - Aircraft Condition Monitoring System.
ACR - Airport Control Radar.
ACT - Active.
ACZ - Airport Control Zone.
A/D - Aerodrome.
AD - Airworthiness Directive, issued by airworthiness authorities to correct a defect found in an aircraft type after certification. Compliance is mandatory and may be required immediately and before further flight, within a specified period of time or number of flying hours, or when next due for routine maintenance.
ADC - Air Data Computer.
ADF - Automatic Direction Finder. Radio compass which gives a relative bearing to the non-directional radio beacon to which it is tuned.
ADG - Air Driven Generator.
ADI - Attitude Deviation Indicator. An advanced type of artificial horizon, part of a flight director system providing pitch and roll information and commands.
ADIRS - Air Data Inertial Reference System.
ADIRU - Air Data Inertial Reference Unit.
ADIZ - Air Defence Identification Zone. An area of airspace extending upwards from the surface, usually along a national boundary, within which identification of all aircraft is required in the interests of national security.
ADJ - Adjusted / Adjustment.
ADLP - Aircraft Data Link Processor, the Mode S subnetwork function onboard the aircraft that implements the OSI network layer protocols.
ADR - Accident Data Recorder.
ADRS - Address.
ADS - Automatic Dependence Surveillance
AEF - Airports Environmental Federation.
Aerad - UK-published flight guide and navigational chart system.Airport/airport elevation - highest point of an Airport's usable runway(s) expressed in feet above mean sea level (amsl).
AFB - Air Force Base, usually U.S. or Canadian.
AFCS - automatic flight control system, an advanced autopilot. Also IFCS, integrated flight control system.
AFDS - Autopilot Flight Director System.
AFI - Assistant Flying Instructor.
AFIC - Assistant flying Instructor Course.
AFIS - Airport Flight Information Service, providing information to, but not control of, aircraft using that Airport. Also AFISO, AFIS officer, and AGO, air-to-ground operator.
AFS - Airport Fire Service.
AFTN - Aeronautical Fixed Telecommunications Network. A ground- based teleprinter network transmitting flight plans, weather information etc.
A/G - Air-To-Ground.
agl - Above Ground Level.
AHRS - Attitude Heading Reference System. A sensor deriving aircraft attitude and heading information from gyros and accelerometers.
AIAA - Area of Intense Aerial Activity, usually military.
AIC - Aeronautical Information Circular. Bulletins issued at intervals by the CAA relating to matters of airworthiness, administration, operating procedures, safety etc. AICs are colour-coded according to subject, e.g. safety circulars are pink, thus `Pink 12' issued in December 1990.
AIP - Aeronautical Information Publication. The UK Air Pilot, statutory bible of aeronautical information published by the CAA.
Airep - Form for reporting position and Met conditions in flight.Airmet - CAA's telephone aviation weather service, covering Southern, Northern and Scottish regions of the UK. Also Metdial and Metplan, privately-operated aviation weather services. For full details see Pilot, February 1991.
AIS - Aeronautical Information Service. CAA unit based at London-Heathrow Airport, providing flight-planning services and information for pilots. Publishes AICs, above.
AIZ - Airport Information Zone. See ATZ below.
AL Allegheny
ALERFA - alert phase of search-and-rescue procedure.
ALPA - Air Line Pilots Association.
ALT - Altitude
ALT - Alternate Alternate - Airport specified on a flight plan to which an aircraft chooses to divert if a landing at its intended destination is not possible (for reasons of poor weather, for example).
ALT HOLD - Altitude Hold ModeAltimeter Setting - Barometric pressure reading in millibars, hectopascals or (in USA) inches of mercury (Hg) used to set a pressure altimeter's sub-scale to QFE or QNH.
ALTN - Alternate
AM - Amplitude Modulation
AM - Aeromexico
AME - Authorized Medical Examiner. A doctor approved by the CAA (or foreign licensing authority) to conduct examinations for the issue or renewal of aircrew medical certificates.
AMSL - Above Mean Sea Level (sometimes asl in USA).
ANA - All Nippon Airways
ANO - Air Navigation Order. Statutory legal instrument defining the laws of air navigation, pilot licensing etc, in the UK. Other aviation legislation includes the Rules of the Air and Air Traffic regulations and the Air Navigation (General) Regulations
AoA - Angle Of Attack.
AOA - Airport Operators' Association.
AOC - Air Operator's Certificate, issued by the CAA and required by aircraft operators flying scheduled or charter public transport flights, including cargo, air-taxi and pleasure-flying work. Also Air Officer Commanding in RAF parlance.
AoE - airport of entry (usually in USA).AOG - aircraft on ground, a term used to denote urgency when requesting spares or service from suppliers or manufacturers, meaning that the aircraft cannot fly again until the parts have been supplied.
AOM - Aircraft Operating Manual
AOPA - Aircraft Owners and Pilots Association.
A/P - Airport or Autopilot.
A & P - Airframe and Powerplant Mechanic (USA).
APA - Aerodromes Protection Agency, the federation of associations for the advancement of British general aviation facilities.
APHAZ - Aircraft Proximity Hazards Assessment Panel, which investigates near-miss reports filed by air traffic controllers (see also JAWG).
APP - Approach (control).
APU - Auxiliary Power Unit. Large transport aircraft and some business jets have an APU, typically a small turbine, to provide power for engine-starting and for running systems when on the ground, obviating the need for external power or ground power unit, GPU.
ARB - Airworthiness Review Board.
ARCAL - Aircraft Radio Control of Airport lighting.
Aresti - Key shorthand notation system devised by Spaniard José L Aresti whereby aerobatic display routines or competition sequences can be drawn up on paper like a musical score. Now largely superseded by the simpler FAI Aerobatic Catalogue system.
ARINC - Aeronautical Radio Incorporated. A non-profit corporation owned by airlines to set standards for airline avionics and provide communications services.
ARP - Airport reference point.
ARR - Arrival
ASDA - Accelerate-Stop Distance Available.
ASI - Airspeed Indicator, a flight instrument which measures the speed of an aircraft through the air.
ASR - altimeter setting region, a geographical area for which the lowest value of QNH (which see) is forecast hourly and relayed by air traffic control centers. Also airport surveillance radar and air-sea rescue.
A/T - Autothrottle
ATA - Air Transport Association
ATA - Actual Time of Arrival.
ATC - Air Traffic Control.
ATCO - air traffic control officer. Also ATCA, air traffic control assistant; ATCC, air traffic control center; SATCO, senior air traffic control officer.
ATHR - Autothrust System
ATIS - automatic terminal information service, a continuous recorded broadcast of routine non-control airport information, usually at large airports.
ATPL - Air Transport Pilot's Licence, needed to act as pilot-in- command of a commercial air transport aircraft exceeding 20,000 kg all-up weight.
ATS - Air Traffic Service. Also ATSU, ATS Unit.
ATS - Automatic Throttle System
ATSORA - air traffic services outside regulated airspace.
ATZ - Airport Traffic Zone. An area of protected airspace surrounding an Airport bounded by a circle of 2 nm or 2.5 nm radius (depending on runway length) centered on the mid-point of the longest runway. Permission is required for entry into and movement in an ATZ.
AUW - All-Up Weight, a term for the total loaded weight of an aircraft.avgas - Aviation Gasoline, usually followed by the octane rating. Used by piston-engined aircraft. Also LL, low lead.avtur - Aviation Turbine Fuel (kerosene). Used by turboprops and jets.
AWACS - Airborne Warning And Control System
AWY - airway.
BBAA - British Airports Authority.
BAeA - British Aerobatic Association.
BALPA - British Airline Pilots Association.
BAUA - Business Aircraft Users Association.
BCAR - British Civil Air Requirements. Airworthiness standards laid down by the CAA for certification of aircraft on the UK Civil Aircraft Register.
BCP - Break Cloud Procedure.
BCPL - Basic Commercial Pilot's Licence, the minimum qualification necessary in the UK to receive payment for acting as a pilot. Also CPL, Commercial Pilot's Licence, and SCPL, Senior Commercial Pilot's Licence (no longer issued).
Beta Mode - Manually-controlled mode for CS propellers on turboprop aircraft enabling reverse pitch to be selected for braking or to aid ground manoeuvring.
BF - MarkAir
BFR - Biennial Flight Review (USA). Holders of U.S. FAA Private Pilot Licences must undergo a flight check with an FAA-approved examiner every two years. No UK equivalent.
BGA - British Gliding Association.
BHAB - British Helicopter Advisory Board
BHPA - British Hang-Gliding and Paragliding Association.
BMAA - British Microlight Aircraft Association.
Bottlang - Loose-leaf Euopean airfields manual for VFR operations.
BRG - Bearing, the horizontal direction to or from any point expressed in degrees of the compass.
BWPA - British Women Pilots Association.
CC - Celsius (temperature) or compass.
CAA - Civil Aviation Authority. ( UK )
CAD/CAM - computer-aided design/manufacture.
CAAFU - Civil Aviation Authority Flying Unit, based at Stansted Airport, which performs such tasks as navaid checking and calibration and also examines candidates for instrument ratings and commercial pilot's licences.
CANP - Civil Aviation Notification Procedure. A voluntary system whereby civil operators notify their intention to fly at low level (at or below 1,000 feet agl, when crop-spraying or powerline inspecting for example), aimed at avoiding conflict with low-flying military aircraft.
CAP - Civil Air Publication. Information booklets issued by the CAA, e.g.
CAP 53 The Private Pilot Licence.
CAPT - Captain.
CAS - Calibrated Airspeed -- indicated airspeed corrected for air density and compressibility.
CAT - Clear-Air Turbulence. Also CATegory when referring to certain instrument landing systems which require special aircraft instrumentation, certification and pilot qualification beyond those needed for standard instrument approaches.
CAVOK - pronounced CAV-okay (ceiling and visibility OK), visibility at least ten kilometres, with no cloud below 5,000 feet, with no Cbs, precipitation, thunderstorms, shallow fog or low drifting snow.
CAVU - Ceiling and visibility unlimited. Cloudless (or scattered cloud) conditions with visibility in excess of ten kilometres.
CDI - Course Deviation Indicator. The vertical needle of a VOR indicator which shows the aircraft's position relative to the selected VOR radial.
CDU - Control Display Unit.Ceiling - Height above ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of cloud below 20,000 feet which covers more than half of the sky.
CFI - Chief Flying Instructor (certified flying instructor in USA).
CH - Compass Heading.
CHIRP - Confidential Human Factors Incident Reporting system, whereby professional pilots and ATC staff may report in confidence incidents arising from human errors for analysis by the RAF Institute of Aviation Medicine at Farnborough.
CHT - Cylinder Head Temperature (gauge). A device which, by means of a probe(s) gives a cockpit readout of the temperature of one or more of an aircraft engine's cylinder heads.
CI - China Airlines
Circuit - Pattern around which aircraft fly when arriving at an airfield. See also finals, below.
C/L - Center-line (of a runway, for example).
CLB Climb
Clearance - Authorization from air traffic control to proceed as requested or instructed. Used for ground and air manoeuvring, thus "cleared for take-off", "cleared flight-planned route", "cleared to descend" etc.
Clouds - commonly-used abbrevitaions for cloud types :-
AC = altocumulus
AS = altostratus
CB = cumulonimbus
CC = cirrocumulus
CI = cirrus
CS = cirrostratus
CU = cumulus
NS = nimbo stratus
SC = stratocumulus
ST = stratusCLR - Clear
CO - Continetnal
C of A - Certificate of Airworthiness issued by the CAA indicating that an aircraft meets the Authority's airworthiness standards. Cs of A are issued to individual aircraft, and also to generic aircraft types (Type Certification in the USA) when the first example of a type is registered. Cs of A on individual aircraft are granted in several categories, e.g. Private, Public Transport, Aerial Work etc. and much be renewed at intervals. Permits to Fly are authorisations granted to aircraft such as homebuilts, vintage aeroplanes, warbirds and some simple classic light aircraft which are not required to meet the standards demanded for a full C of A, and are accordingly restricted in the kinds of operation for which they may be used.
C of E - Certificate of Experience, valid for private pilot licence holders for thirteen months, and renewed by flight test or evidence of completing the minimum required flying experience in the preceding thirteen-month period. Also C of T, certificate of test.c of g - Center of gravity. The point on an aircraft through which the entire aircraft's weight may be assumed to act (i.e. around which the aircraft, if suspended, would balance). C of G limits are the most forward and rearward positions of the C of G permitted for safe operation. An aircraft loaded outside its C of G limits can be difficult or impossible to control.COM(M) - communication(s)
C of P - Center of pressure, the point through which the total effect of lift may be said to act on an aeroplane.
CPL - Commercial Pilot's Licence
CPU - Central Processing Unit
CR or C/R - counter-rotating. Usually in general aviation referring to twin-engined aircraft with `handed' engines whose propellers turn in opposite directions to eliminate propeller torque effect.
CRP - compulsory reporting point.
CRS - Course CRT - Cathode ray (television) tube. Used in flight deck displays of new-generation airliners, business aircraft and military jets instead of conventional instruments. See also EFIS, below.
Critical Altitude - The highest density altitude at which it is possible to maintain the maximum continuous rated power or manifold pressure of an aero engine.
Critical Engine - The engine on a multi-engined aircraft whose failure would most seriously effect performance or handling of the aircraft, through asymmetric effects or loss of power to systems such as hydraulics.
CRS Course - The intended direction of flight in the horizontal plane expressed in degrees of the compass.
CRZ - Cruise c/s - call sign.
CS - constant-speed (propeller). A variable-pitch propeller which maintains constant rpm by automatically changing blade angle. Also CSU, constant-speed unit.
CTA - Control Area. An area of controlled airspace extending upwards from specified limit agl.
CTR - Control Zone. An area of controlled airspace extending upwards from ground level to a specified upper limit.
CVR - cockpit voice recorder. A tape recorder installed on the flight decks of commercial transport aircraft and helicopters and some business aeroplanes to record crew conversation, RT transmissions and cockpit background noises (e.g. trim-wheel operation, flap motor running) in case required for incident or accident investigation.
CW - carrier wave or continuous wave.
CZ - Control Zone (USA).
DDA - Danger Area. Also DACS, Danger Area Crossing Service, and
DAAIS, Danger Area Activity Information Service.
D & D - Distress & Diversion Cells at Air Traffic Control Centers. RAF units which provide a 24-hour listening watch on VHF and UHF emergency frequencies and can locate and assist pilots who are lost or in emergency situations.
deadstick - descent and landing with engine(s) shut down and propeller(s) stopped.
DCT - direct
Decca - Hyperbolic area navigation system, originally devel,oped for maritime use, based on signals received from a chain of master and slave ground stations located in northern Europe.
Density Altitude - Pressure altitude corrected for air temperature.
DEP - Departure
DEST - Destination
DETRESFA - Distress phase of search-and-rescue operation.
DF - Direction-Finding. A DF bearing can be provided by airfields or other facilities such as D & D cells (above) having suitable direction-finding equipment to locate an aircraft.
DH - Decision Height. The height on a precision approach at which a pilot must have the runway approach lights in sight to continue the descent, or if not, must initiate a go-around.
DI - Direction Indicator. A gyro instrument which indicates the magnetic heading of an aircraft. The DI, also known as the directional gyro (DG), is free of the turning errors associated with magnetic compasses but is prone to precession (wander) and must be reset against the magnetic compass at intervals.
DL - Delta DME - Distance-Measuring Equipment. A combination of ground and airborne equipment which gives a continuous slant range distance-from-station readout by measuring time-lapse of a signal transmitted by the aircraft to the station and responded back. DMEs can also provide groundspeed and time-to-station readouts by differentiation.Doppler - Doppler effect (or shift) is the change in frequency of light, radio or sound waves when source and receiver are in relative motion.
DOT - Department of Transportion.
DP - Dew Point
DR - Dead (deduced) Reckoning. Plotting position by calculating the effect of speed, course, time and wind against last known position.dry - When referring to aircraft hire charges means `without fuel', as opposed to wet, with fuel.
DZ - Dropping zone, for parachuting etc.
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EEAA - Experimental Aircraft Association, the American homebuilders' organisation.
EADI - Electronic Attitude Director Indicator. An ADI with CRT cockpit display forming part of an EFIS, below.
EAT - Estimated Approach Time.
EBAA - European Business Aircraft Association.
ECAC - European Civil Aviation Conference.
ECOGAS - European Council of General Aviation Support.
ECU - Environmental Control Unit.
EET - Estimated Elapsed Time.
EFAS - Electronic Flash Approach light System.
EFATO - Engine Failure At (or after) Take-Off.
EFIS - Electronic Flight Instrument System, in which multi- function CRT displays replace traditional instruments for providing flight, navigation and aircraft systems information, forming a so-called `glass cockpit'. Now common in commercial transports, corporate aircraft and helicopters, military fighters and some GA piston singles and twins.EGT - Exhaust Gas Temperature (gauge). A device which provides a cockpit readout of the exhaust gas temperature of an aircraft's (piston) engine(s), enabling the pilot to lean the mixture for maximum fuel efficiency.
EHSI - Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator. CRT-based HSI forming part of an EFIS.
EICAS - Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System. CRT display which monitors engine performance and alerts the crew to system or airframe failure. Found in new-generation transports and business jets.
ELT - Emergency Locator Transmitter. A small radio transmitter fixed to an aircraft's structure which is automatically activated by impact or water immersion and transmits a code on emergency frequencies enabling SAR satellites or search units equipped with DF to locate the crash or ditching site. Carriage mandatory in the USA, but not in UK. Sometimes styled ADELT, automatically deployable ELT, or ELB, emergency locator beacon.
Empty Weight - Weight of the basic aeroplane including all fixed equipment, plus unusable fuel, oil, hydraulic and other fluids.
Encoding Altimeter - An altimeter which gives a digital output to the transponder (which see) for automatic transmission of the aircraft's pressure altitude to ATC.
ENG - Engine
EOBT - Estimated Off-Blocks Time.
EPNdB - Effective perceived noise decibel. Unit of measurement of aircraft noise levels.
ETA - Estimated Time of Arrival. Also ETD, estimated time of departure; ETE, estimated time en route.
EROPS - extended range operations, usually long over-water flights by twin-jet airliners.
ETPS - Empire Test Pilots School, based at the Aircraft & Armament Experimental Establishment, Boscombe Down.Eurocontrol - organisation, headquartered in The Netherlands, comprising Belgium, France, Germany, Ireland, Luxembourg, Netherlands and UK for coordinating enroute air traffic control in Europe.
FFAA - Federal Aviation Administration, ( US )
FADEC - Full-Authority Digital Engine Control.
FAF - Final Approach Fix, the point at which a published instrument approach begins.
FAI - Fédération Aéronautique Internationale, the international body for verification of aeronautical record attempts and sporting regulations.
FAR - Federal Aviation Regulations ( US )
FARA - Formula Air Racing Association.
FBO - Fixed-Base Operator, American term for commercial operators supplying fuel, maintenance, aircraft sales, rental, flight training, handling and other general aviation services at an airport. (So-called because the the first FBOs were early barnstormers who chose to settle at one field.)
FBW - Fly-By-Wire. Aircraft control systems in which pilots' control inputs are transmitted to control surfaces electronically or via fibre optics rather than by mechanical linkage.
FDR - Flight Data Recorder, Better known as the `black box' (actually painted bright orange), by which various parameters of an aircraft's flight performance are recorded for analysis in the event of an incident or accident.Feather (of a propeller) - To set the angle of CS or VP propeller edge-on to the airflow to minimise drag and rotation following engine failure on multi-engined aircraft. Also applies to motor gliders which have feathering propellers to enhance engine-off soaring performance.
FF - Fuel Flow
Final(s) - Final Approach. The part of a landing sequence or aerodrome circuit procedure in which the aircraft has made its final turn and is inbound to the active runway. Downwind is the segment of the circuit paralleling the runway and flown on a reciprocal heading. Base leg is the crosswind segment bringing the aircraft from the downwind leg to final approach. The leg before downwind is called the Crosswind leg.
FIC - Flight Information Center.
FIR - Flight Information Region. UK airspace is divided into two FIRs, London and Scottish.
FIS - Flight Information Service, providing a variety of services and information (but not control) to air traffic in the two FIRs above. Fix - Position in space usually on aircraft's flight plan FJ - fast jet.
FL - flight level, a level of constant atmospheric pressure shown by an altimeter set to a standard 1013.2 millibars, expressed in rounds hundreds of feet, thus FL330 is 33,000 feet. Flag - Warning signal incorporated in certain navigation and flight instruments indicating that the instrument is not operating satisfactorily or that the strength of signals being received from ground stations is below acceptable limits.
Flat Rating - throttling or other restriction of engine power ouput (usually in turboprops and turboshafts) at sea level to enable it to give constant predictable power at higher operating altitudes.
Flameout - combustion failure in a turbine engine resulting in power loss.FLCH - Flight Level Change.
Flicker Effect - nausea, dizziness or vertigo which can be brought on by flickering at certain frequencies of a bright light source such as sunlight or strobe when viewed through a rotating propeller or rotor blades.
FLIR - Forward Looking Infrared.
FLT - Flight
FMC - Flight Management Computer
FMCS - Flight Management Computer System.
FMS - Flight Management System.
FO - First Officer , also F/O
FOB - Fuel on Board.
FOD - Foreign Object Damage, usually to turbine engines through ingestion of runway debris etc.
FPA - Flight Path Angle
FPF - Flight Plan Forecast.
FPM - Feet Per Minute, a measure of an aircraft's rate of climb or descent. Similarly m/s or mps, metres per second.
FPT - Flight Plan Time.
FREQ - Frequency
FSS - Flight Service Station ( US ).
Gg - the acceleration force of gravity, normally 1g on earth. Zero g (0g) is weightlessness, as experienced by orbiting astronauts. g is expressed as positive (+) and negative (-) values, During a normal loop a pilot experiences positive g, tending to force him down in his seat. In an outside loop, with the pilot's head on the outside of the vertical circle, negative g forces him up against his straps. Aircraft structural load limits are expressed in positive and negative values, the positive limit usually greater than negative, except in specialist aerobatic types.
g-loc - g-induced loss of consciousness. Pilot blackouts caused by excessive g or by too-rapid onset of g-forces. Experienced mostly by pilots of high-performance military jets and competition aerobatic aircraft, has led to fatal crashes.
GA - General Aviation, all flying other than airlines and the military.
GAAC - General Aviation Awareness Campaign.
GAFOR - General Aviation Visual Flight Forecast. Met briefing service in operation in France, Germany, the Netherlands and some other European countries.
GAMA - General Aviation Manufacturers Association, an American trade organisation.
GAMTA - General Aviation Manufacturers & Traders Association, ( UK )
GAPAN - Guild of Air Pilots and Air Navigators.
GASIL - General Aviation Safety Information Leaflet. Monthly safety and accident prevention bulletin for pilots and engineers published by the CAA.
GCA - Ground-Controlled Approach. A landing approach in which a ground controller gives verbal guidance in azimuth and elevation to a pilot using precision approach radar (PAR) to monitor the aircraft's approach path. Still used by the military, but defunct in civil aviation.
GFT - General Flying Test, taken by student pilots to qualify for the PPL, and also by candidates for the BCPL and CPL. Also NFT, navigation flight test, which is part of the practical examination for the PPL.
GHz - Gigahertz Glonass - Russian equivalent of GPS/Navstar satellite navigation system.
GMT - Greenwich MeanTime
GND - Ground
GNSS - Global Navigation Satellite Systems. Go-around to climb away from a runway after making an approach, either to make a further attempt at landing or to divert to an alternate airport (formerly `overshoot').
GOSSU - Global Positioning System Sensor Unit Goxio - VHF direction-finding (France)
GP - Glidepath
GPH - Gallons Per Hour, an expression of fuel consumption or fuel flow (FF) in either imperial or U.S. gallons. Usually lb/hr for turbine-powered aircraft.
GPS - Global Positioning System (Navstar). A U.S. developed satellite-based high-precision navigation system, intended primarily for military use but now in widespread use by commercial and private operators, though with reduced accuracy compared with military versions.
GPWS - Ground Proximity Warning System. A radar-based flight- deck system to give pilots audible warning by means of horns, hooters, taped or synthetic voices of terrain close beneath an aircraft's flight path.
GRADU - Gradual (term used in Met reports).
GRP - Glassfibre-Reinforced Plastic. Composite materials seeing increasing use in entire airframes for GA aircraft (e.g. Beech Starship) and for components for helicopters, airliners and military aircraft.
GS - Glideslope. The vertical guidance part of an instrument landing system which establishes a safe glidepath (usually three degrees) to a runway.
G/S - Groundspeed. The speed an aircraft makes over the ground, a product of its airspeed and wind speed.
HH24 - Continuous round-the-clock operation. Also HJ operates during day; HN operates during night; HO operates during times to meet operational requirements, and HX no specific operational hours.
HAA - Historic Aircraft Association.
HAI - Helicopter Association International.
Half-Mill(ion) - 1:500,000 scale ICAO aeronautical chart.
HDG - Heading. The direction in which an aircraft's nose points in flight in the horizontal plane, expressed in compass degrees.
Heavy - Suffix used in RT callsigns to indicate that the aircraft is a large transport, alerting controllers and following aircraft to the possibility of wake turbulence.
Hectopascal (hPa) - unit of pressure measurement, equivalent to one millibar (which see), now the ICAO-standard for altimeter setting.
HEMS - Helicopter emergency medical services.
Hertz - Standard radio equivalent of frequency in cycles per second. See also kHz and MHz. HF - High-Frequency band, used for long-range radio communications in the 3-30 MHz range.Hg - Inches Of Mercury, a unit of pressure measurement.
HIAL - High Intensity Approach Lighting.
HIRF - High Intensity Radiated (electromagnetic) Fields.
HIRL - High Intensity Runway Lighting.
HISL - High Intensity Strobe Light.
Holding Pattern - Racetrack-shaped manoeuvre which keeps aircraft within a specified airspace while awaiting further clearance from air traffic control.hot-and-high - Airfield conditions of high altitude and high ambient temperatures that can severely limit aircraft performance. See also density altitude.HOTAS - Hands on throttle and stick. Ergonomic cockpit design technology, originally developed for military combat aircraft, enabling a pilot to fly the aircraft and manage all navigation, weapons and other systems from control column/throttle lever hand grips.
HP - Holding Pattern
HPA - Hectopascals
HRA - Highlands Restricted Area
HSI - Horizontal Situation Indicator. A cockpit navigation display, usually part of a flight-director system, which combines navigation and heading.
HUD - Head-Up Display. A method of projecting instrument readouts or data which enables a pilot to see them while looking through the aircraft's windscreen. Mostly used on military aircraft, but now in service on some commercial airliners.
IIAS - Indicated Airspeed. An aircraft's speed through the air as indicated by the ASI, without correction for position error, altitude or outside air temperature.
IATA - International Air Transport Association.
I/C - Intercom
ICAO - International Civil Aviation Organisation.
IDG - Integrated Drive Generators.
IF - Instrument Flying.
IFF - Identification Friend or Foe.
IFR - Instrument Flight Rules prescribed for the operation of aircraft in instrument meteorological conditions. Flight in most controlled airspace in the UK is conducted under IFR or Special VFR. Also used by military to denote in-flight refuelling.
IGE - In Ground Effect. Helicopter performance with an earth surface immediately below. Also OGE, out of ground effect. Helicopters can hover at a greater maximum altitude IGE (above a mountain slope, for example) than they can in free air, OGE.
IGS - Instrument Guidance System.
ILS - Instrument Landing System. The approach aid employing two radio beams to provide pilots with vertical and horizontal guidance during the landing approach. The localiser provides azimuth guidance, while the glide-slope defines the correct vertical descent profile. Marker beacons and high intensity runways lights are also part of the ILS.
IMC - Instrument Meteorological Conditions: weather below VMC minima, see below. Also associated rating used in conjunction with UK PPL.
INCERFA - Uncertainty phase of search-and-rescue procedure.
INMARSAT - International Maritime Satellite.
INS - Inertial Navigation System. A gyroscope-based system which senses acceleration and deceleration and computes an aircraft's position in latitude and longitude with great accuracy. Used mostly by long-haul airliners, military aircraft and sophisticated business jets. Also IRS, inertial reference system.
INTER - Intermittent or fluctuating, term used in Met reports.
IR - Instrument Rating.
ISA - International Standard Atmosphere -- a set of standard conditions or temperature and pressure which serve as a basis for comparison. ISA = pressure 1013.2 millibars, temperature 15øC. Aircraft performance figures quoted by manufacturers are often based on such a `standard day'.
ITT - Inter-Turbine Temperature.
JJAA - Joint Aviation Authority.
JAR - Joint Aviation Requirements, being drawn up by eighteen European states, aimed at unifying airworthiness, flight crew licensing and other criteria among signatory nations.
JAWG - Joint Airmiss Working Group. A civilian/military committee which reviews and reports on all airmisses which occur in UK airspace.
Jeppesen - U.S.-developed navigational/approach chart system with worldwide coverage, similar to British Aerad system.
JPATS - Joint Primary Aircraft Training System. A USAF/U.S. Navy programme to select a common aircraft design as a basic pilot trainer for the two services, due to be decided next year.
KkHz - Kilohertz, the frequency of a radio carrier wave measured in thousands of cycles per second. 1 kHz = 1,000 Hertz.
KLM - Royal Dutch Airlines
Knot (kt) - One nautical mile per hour (never one knot per hour), the standard unit of aviation speed measurement. One knot equals 1.1515 mph; one nautical mile equals 6,080 feet. kw - Kilowatt.
LLARS - Lower Airspace Radar Advisory service, available to all aircraft flying in uncontrolled UK airspace from 3,000 feet amsl to FL95. See also MMARS, RAS and RIS, below.
LAMS - Light Aircraft Maintenance Schedule, the CAA-approved schedule for fixed-wing light aircraft below 2,730 kg auw whose Cs of A are valid for three years subject to compliance with LAMS.
LAT - Latitude.
LDA - Landing Distance Available.
LDG - Landing
LF - Low-Frequency radio waves with frequencies in the 30-300 kHz band.
LITAS - Low-Intensity Two-colour Approach System.
LLTV - Low Light Level Television.
LLZ - Localizer ( US )
LNAV - Lateral Navigation.
LOC - Localiser. The azimuth guidance portion of an instrument landing system. Locator - Medium-frequency non-directional radio beacon used as an aid to establishing yourself on final approach during an instrument landing procedure. Also LOM, locator outer marker.
LON(g) - Longitude
Loran - Low-frequency hyperbolic radio long-range navigation system which measures time difference between reception of synchronised signals transmitted from ground transmitters. Loran-C, operates in the 100-110 kHz frequency band with an operating range of 600-1,500 nm independent of line-of-sight, and is becoming very popular among GA aircraft operators in the USA.
MMAG - Magnetic
Mach number - Ratio of true airspeed to the speed of sound. Mach 1 is the speed of sound at sea level, ISA, approximately 1,100 feet per second or 760 mph.
MAP - Missed Approach Point. The point on a published ILS approach expressed in time or distance from the final approach fix, or as an altitude on the glideslope, at which the missed approach procedure must be initiated if the runway or approach lights are not clearly in sight. Marker Beacons (mkrs) - Part of an instrument landing system using 75 MHz transmitters emitting fan-shaped or elliptical signal patterns vertically upwards, defining specific points along the glideslope. The outer marker OM is situated at or near the glideslope intercept altitude of the ILS localiser, the middle marker (MM) defines a point on the glideslope at or near decision height (DH). Markers provide aural and visual indications on a cockpit marker beacon receiver. MATZ - Military Airport Traffic Zone. An area of protected airspace surrounding certain military airfields which normally extends for a five nautical mile radius around the airfield and upwards from the surface to 3,000 feet above Airport level. A 'stub' projection protects the final approach path to the main runway outwards from the MATZ boundary, enclosing an area two nautical miles either side of the extended runway Centerline and upwards from 1,000 feet above the surface to 3,000 feet above Airport elevation. Although recognition of a MATZ is not mandatory for civil aircraft, all MATZ Airports offer a penetration service to civil traffic during operational hours.
Mayday - International radio distress call (from the French, m'aidez -- help me). It signifies imminent danger to life requiring immediate assistance.mb - Millibar.
MCDU - Multifunction Control Display Unit
MCP - Mode Control Panel
MDA - Minimum Descent Altitude. The lowest altitude, in feet amsl, to which descent is authorised on final approach during a non-precision instrument landing (i.e. where no glideslope guidance is given) without visual reference to the runway.
MDH - Minimum Descent Height, agl.
MEDA - Military Emergency Diversion Airfield.
MET - Meteorology, weather.
METAR - Coded Airport Met report.
MF - Medium Frequency. Radio waves with frequencies in the 300- 3,000 kHz range.
MFA - Military Flying Area
MFD - Multi-Function Display. An EFIS CRT offering selectable displays of weather radar, navigation maps, checklists and data other than primary flight information.
MH - Magnetic Heading
MHz - Megahertz, the frequency of radio carrier waves measured in millions of cycles per second.Minimums - Weather condition requirements for a particular mode of flight (e.g. for VFR operation, IFR take-offs and landings).
MLS - Microwave Landing System. A microwave-based instrument approach system intended to replace ILS in the 1990s and claimed to offer a number of advantages such as the ability to fly segmented and curved precision approaches.
MMARS - Military Middle Airspace Radar Service, available to military and civil aircraft operating in UK airspace between FL100 and FL245.
MOA - Military Operations Area. mogas - Car fuel, approved for use in some light aircraft subject to certain conditions.
MPA - Man-Powered Aircraft
MSA - Minimum sector altitude or minimum safe altitude.
MSL - Mean Sea Level
MTBF - Mean Time Between Failures.
MTMA - Military Terminal Control Area.
NNATS - National Air Traffic Services. A division of the CAA providing UK air traffic control. NBAA - National Business Aircraft Association, USA.
ND - Navigation Display.
NDB - Mon-Directional Beacon. A medium-frequency navigational aid which transmits non-directional signals, superimposed with a Morse code identifier and received by an aircraft's ADF. nm - Nautical Mile.
NOE - Nap of Earth. Low flying, usually by the military, using contour-flying techniques and terrain-masking to avoid being seen.
NORDO - No Radio (used on flight plan form).
NOSIG - No Significant Change, term used on Met reports.
Notam - Notices to Airmen, issued by the CAA (and equivalent authorities elsewhere) to inform pilots of new or changed aeronautical facilities, services, procedures or hazards, temporary or permanent. Also SNOWTAM, a NOTAM concerning runway conditions in snow.
NOTAR - No Tail Rotor. A system patented by McDonnell Douglas for maintaining directional control of helicopters without use of an anti-torque tail rotor.
NPRM - Notice of Proposed Rule-Making (USA). Advance publication by the FAA of proposed changes or additions to Federal Air Regulations.
NTSB - National Transportation Safety Board. U.S. equivalent of UK's AAIB.
OOAT - Outside Air Temperature. The temperature of the air outside an aircraft measured by a probe with a cockpit gauge readout.
OAT affects the measurement of indicated airspeed and its value is needed to calculate true airspeed. At high speeds kinetic heating demands correction to the indicated OAT for true outside air temperature.
OATS - Oxford Air Training School, a large commercial pilot training school at Oxford Airport, UK.
OBS - Omni-Bearing Selector, part of a VOR used to select the radial from a VOR.
OCH - Obstacle Clearance Height. The lowest height above the elevation of the runway threshold or above Airport elevation used to establish compliance with obstacle clearance criteria in an instrument approach. Also OCA, obstacle clearance altitude, and OCL, obstacle clearance limit.
OEM - Original Equipment Manufacturer.
okta - A measurement of cloud cover. One okta means one-eighth of the sky is covered.
Omega - High accuracy, very-low frequency (VLF) long-range navigation system of the hyperbolic type, covering the entire earth down to the surface from eight ground-based transmitters. Used principally by airliners, military aircraft and intercontinental business aircraft.
o/r - on request.
o/t - other times.
PPan - International radio call signalling urgency.
PAPI - Precision Approach Path Indicator, a system of coloured lights installed at the approach end of a runway which provides visual guidance to the correct glidepath. A successor to VASI, below.
PAR - Precision Approach Radar. Primary radar equipment showing an air traffic controller the height, track and range of an aircraft on final approach, enabling him to guide it to a landing.
PAX - Passengers.
PFA - Popular Flying Association, the UK homebuilt and antique aircraft organisation.
PFD - Primary Flight Display
PIC - Pilot-In-Command (also styled P1).
PINS - Pipeline Inspection Notification System.
PIO - Pilot-Induced Oscillation. An undulating flight path brought about by over-controlling. PLN - Flight-Plan
PMS - Performance management System
PNF - Pilot Not Flying
POB - (number of) Persons On Board.
POC - Proof-Of-Concept.
POH - Pilot's Operating Handbook, an aircraft's `owner's manual'. Pooley's - Annually-published flight guide to United Kingdom and Ireland, named after its creator and publisher Bob Pooley. PPL - Private Pilot's Licence. Also PPL(H) for helicopters, PPL(SLMG) for self-launched motor gliders.
PPO - Prior Permission Only. Certain airfields or events require advance notification (by telephone, for example) of your intended arrival. Also PNR, prior notice required, and PPR, prior permission required.
PROB - Probability Percentage, term used in Met reports.procedure turn - Manoeuvre which reverses the direction of an aircraft's flight during an instrument approach procedure to enable it to intercept the final approach course.
psi - Pounds Per Square Inch, a measurement of pressure.
PTT - Press-To-Transmit (switch) on an aircraft's control wheel or stick enabling the pilot to make RT transmission 'hands on' via a headset microphone.
Purple Airspace - Special temporary airways created for flights by certain members of the royal family, notified by NOTAM.
QQFI - Qualified Flying Instructor. Also QHI, Qualified Helicopter Instructor.
Quadrantal Rule - System of cruising altitudes used in UK uncontrolled airspace below FL250. Q-code - Code system developed when air-to-ground communication was by wireless telegraphy, enabling many routine phrases and questions to be reduced to three letters. Now largely redundant, except these:
QDM magnetic bearing to a direction-finding station.
QDR magnetic bearing from the station.QFE atmospheric pressure at Airport elevation. With its sub-scale set to the Airport QFE an altimeter will indicate height above that airfield.
QFU magnetic orientation of runway in use.
QNE reading in feet on an altimeter set to 1013.2 millibars (standard pressure) when the aircraft is at Airport elevation.QNH altitude above mean sea level based on local station pressure.
QTE true line of position from a direction-finding station.
QUJ true bearingRRabbit Lights - Colloquialism for sequentially flashing lead-in runway approach lights.
Ramp Weight - Maximum permissible weight of an aircraft, which exceeds maximum take-off weight by an allowance for fuel burned during engine-start and taxi.
RAPID - Change expected to take place in thirty minutes or less, term used in mer reports.
RAS (1) - Rectified Airspeed. Indicated airspeed corrected for instrument position error.
RAS (2) - Radar Advisory Service. Provided outside regulated airspace to notify pilots of conflicting traffic and to advise suitable avoiding action. Also RASA Radar Advisory Service Area. Rating - Add-on qualification to a pilot's licence, e.g. Night Rating, Multi-engine Rating, Instrument Rating, Seaplane Rating etc. Individual Type Ratings are necessary to fly aircraft over 12,500 pounds MTWA.
RCL - Runway Center Line.
RBI - Relative Bearing Indicator, displaying information from the ADF.
RDO - Radio
RIS - Radar Information Service. Provided to notify pilots of conflicting traffic outisde regulated airspace, but offering no avoiding action.
RMI - Radio Magnetic Indicator. A navigation aid which combines DI, VOR and/or ADF display and will indicate bearings to stations, together with aircraft heading.
RMK - Remark(s).
RMU - radio management unit.
RNAV - Area Navigation. A system of radio navigation which permits direct point-to-point off-airways navigation by means of an on-board computer creating phantom VOR/DME transmitters termed waypoints.
RON - Remain Over Night (night-stop).
RT - Radio Telephony. Voice communications, as opposed to WT, wireless telegraphy. Also styled RTF.
RTA - Required Time Of Arrival.
RVR - runway visual range, a horizontal measurement of visibility along a runway.
RWY - Runway.
Rx - Receiver.
SSACP - (CAA) Standing Advisory Committee on Pilot Licensing ( UK ).
SAR - Search-and-Rescue. Also Sarsat, SAR satellite.
SAS - Stability Augmentation System. An automatic flight control system employed in many helicopters and some fixed-wing aircraft to enhance their stability and handling qualities. SATCOMS - Satellite Communications, now being introduced on intercontinental airliners and business jets for (non- operational) air-to-ground voice communications via ground relay stations.
SATNAV - Satellite Navigation
SB - Service Bulletin. Advisory notices issued by aircraft, engine and equipment manufacturers alerting owners and engineers to faults or problems requiring preventitive or remedial maintenance or modification. Often termed `mandatory', but do not have the legal force of Airworthiness Directives (which see).
SBAC - Society of British Aerospace Companies. The UK aerospace manufacturers' trade association.
SDAU - Safety Data Analysis Unit of the CAA.`second pilot' - Unofficial term used to describe short (usually 8-10 hours) flying courses designed to enable non-pilot light aircraft passengers to take control and land in an emergency such as pilot incapacitation. Also standby or safety pilot and pinch-hitter (U.S.)
Sectional - (U.S.) VFR navigation chart, equivalent to our 1:500,000 or `half-million'.
Semi-circular - System of cruising altitudes.
SELCAL - Selective Calling. A high-frequency system enabling air traffic control to alert a particular aircraft, by means of flashing light or aural signal in the cockpit, for receipt of a message without the crew having to maintain a listening watch. Used on long-haul over-ocean airline routes and by intercontinental bizjets.
sfc - Specific fuel consumption of an engine, expressed in pounds of fuel consumed for each unit of power (hp, shp, lb/st) produced. Also surface.
SID - Standard Instrument Departure. A standard IFR departure route enabling air traffic controllers to issue abbreviated clearances and thus speed the flow of traffic.
SIGMET - Warning of severe weather conditions (active thunderstorms, hail, severe turbulence, icing etc.) issued my Met offices.
sl - Sea Level.
SMOH - Since Major Overhaul. Term used in aircraft for sale advertisements where engine hours are quoted (see TBO). Also STOH, since top overhaul, TTSN, total time since new; TTAF/E, total time airframe/engine,
SMR - Surface Movement Radar.
SOB - Souls On Board, the number of persons on board an aircraft. Also POB.
Socked-In - A colloquialism referring to an airport closed to air traffic by bad weather.
SOP - Standard Operating Procedure.
Specific Range - Measure of an aircraft's fuel efficiency, expressed as nautical miles flown per pound of fuel burned (nm/lb)
SPL - Student Pilot's Licence. No longer issued in the UK, where a CAA medical certificate serves as an SPL.
Squawk - To transmit an assigned code via a transponder (see SSR below).
SR - Sunrise.
SRZ - Special Rules Zone. An area of protected airspace surrounding an airfield and extending from the surface upwards to a specific level which affords safety to air traffic movements in the vicinity of airfields whose traffic level does not warrant the establishment of a Control Zone. Also SRA,
Special Rules Area. extending vertically and horizontally from a level above the surface, but not necessarily terminating at the same upper level as the SRZ.SRA - Surveillance Radar Approach. Also Special Rules Area.
SRE - Surveillance Radar Element of a GCA.
SS - Sunset.
SSB - Single Sideband. Reduction of bandwith by transmitting only one sideband and suppressing the other, and usually also the carrier wave.
SSR - Secondary Surveillance Radar. A radar system comprising a ground-based transmitter/receiver which interrogates a compatible unit in the aircraft (see transponder below), providing instant radar identification without having to manoeuvre. Assigned four-digit transponder codes are referred to as squawk codes.
STAB - Stabilizer.
STAR - Standard Terminal Arrival Route, for inbound IFR traffic.
STC - Supplemental Type Certificate. U.S. system for post-type certification approval of aircraft modifications such as re- engining,
STOL kits, etc, where the full certification process is not deemed necessary. Also used by manufacturers to certify (often greatly changed) new models of old types under so-called `grandfather rights'.
STOL - Short Take-Off and Landing. Also VTOL - Vertical Take-Off and Landing; V/STOL - Vertical/Short take-off and landing;
STOVL - Short Take-Off, vertical landing.
TT - True.
TACAN - Tactical Air Navigation System. An ultra-high frequency electronic navigation aid which provides suitably-equipped aircraft with a continuous indication of bearing and distance to the selected Tacan station. The distance element can be received by civilian DMF equipment, but otherwise Tacan is principally a military navaid.
TAF - Terminal Area Forecast.
TAS - True Airspeed. Rectified airspeed corrected for altitude and outside air temperature.
TBO - Time Between Overhauls, an engine manufacturer's recommended overhaul interval in hours, a rough and not guaranteed guide to life expectancy of an aero-engine before it will need overhaul.
TCA - Terminal Control Area ( US ).
TCAS - Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System. U.S. developed radar-based airborne collision avoidance system operating independently of ground-based equipment.
TCAS-I generates traffic advisories only,
TCAS-II provides advisories and collision avoidance instructions in the vertical plane.
TDM - Track Detail Message.
TEMPO - Temporarily
THR - Threshold.
TMA - Terminal Control Area. An area of controlled airspace at the intersection of airways in the vicinity of control zones (CTRs) around major airports.
TO - Take-Off (sometimes TKOF).
TODA - Take-Off Distance Available. Also TODR, take-off distance required, and TORA, take-off run available.
Track - actual flight path of an aircraft over the ground.Transponder - airborne receiver/transmitter portion of the SSR system which receives the interrogation signal from the ground and automatically replies according to mode and code selected. Modes A and B are used for identification, using a four-digit number allocated by air traffic control. Mode C gives automatic altitude readout from an encoding altimeter.
Transition Altitude (TA) - altitude in the vicinity of an Airport at or below which the vertical position of an aircraft is controlled by reference to altitude, i.e. with the Airport QNH set on its altimeter. Above transition altitude QNE is set and flight levels used. Also transition level (TL) at which a descending aircraft changes from FL to QNH.
Trend - Met forecast for the next two hours, added to some METARs.TSO - Technical Standard Order. A standard established by the U.S. FAA for quality control in avionics, instruments and other airborne equipment. If it complies, equipment is said to be 'TSO'd' and is more expensive than similar non-TSO's equipment.
TVOR - terminal VOR. A low-powered VOR located at or near an airport and used as an approach aid.
TWDL - Two Way Datalink.
TWR - Tower (Airport control tower).
TWY - Taxiway.
Tx - Transmitter.
UUA - United
UAS - University Air Squadron.
UDF - UHF Direction Finding.
UFN - Until Further Notice.
UHF - Ultra-High Frequency. Radio frequencies in the 300-3,000 MHz band.
UHMRA - Upper Heyford Mandatory Radio Area.
UIR - Upper Information Region, covering the same geographic areas as a FIR, but extending vertically upwards from 24,500 feet, within which certain additional operational rules apply. Also UIS, Upper Information Service. Unicom - Privately-operated advisory A/G radio service at uncontrolled airfields (USA).
UNL - unlimited
US - USAir
u/s - Unserviceable (i.e not working) when applied to an aircraft or its equipment.
USAF - United States Air Force UTC - Co-ordinated Universal Time (see also Zulu).
VV-speeds - Designations for certain velocities relating to aircraft operation, thus:
V1 Takeoff Decision Speed, up to which it should be possible to abort a take-off and stop safely within the remaining runway length. After reaching V1 the take-off must be continued.
V2 Scheduled Takeoff Target Speed.
Va design manoeuvring speed. The speed below which abrupt and extreme control movements are possible (though not advised) without exceeding the airframe's limiting load factors.
Vfe maximum flap extension speed (top of white arc on ASI).
Vmca minimum control speed (air). The minimum speed at which control of a twin-engined aircraft can be maintained after failure of one engine.
Vne never-exceed speed, `redline speed' denoted by a red radial on an ASI.
Vmo maximum operating speed. Also Mmo, Mach limit maximum operating speed.
Vno normal operating speed. The maximum structural cruising speed allowable for normal operating conditions (top of green arc on ASI).
Vr rotation speed, at which to raise the nose for take-off.
Vso stalling speed at MTWA, in landing configuration with flaps and landing gear down, at sea level, ISA conditions (bottom of white arc on ASI).
Vx best angle of climb speed on all engines.
Vxse best engine-out angle of climb speed.
Vy best rate of climb speed on all engines.
Vyse best engine-out rate of climb speed, `blueline speed' (blue radial on ASIs of light twins)
VNAV - Vertical Navigation.
VAL - Visual Approach and Landing chart.
var - Variation (magnetic)
VASIS - Visual Approach Slope Indicator System. A coloured light system providing visual guidance to the glidepath of a runway.
VDF - Very-High Frequency Direction Finding, whereby an aircraft's bearing from a ground receiving station may be determined from its RT transmissions.
VFR - Visual Flight Rules. Prescribed for the operation of aircraft in visual meteorological conditions (VMC).
VMC is generally defined as five miles visibility or more and 1,000 feet vertical and one nautical mile horizontal clearance from cloud, but variations apply to aircraft operating below 3,000 feet amsl. Special VFR (SVFR) clearances are granted at the discretion of ATC for VFR flight through some controlled airspace where IFR usually apply. Also CVFR, Controlled VFR Flight.VHF - Very High Frequency. Radio frequencies in the 30-300 MHz band, used for most civil air-to-ground communication.
VIS - Visibility.
VLF - Very Low Frequency. Radio frequencies in the 3-30 kHz band.
VLF/Omega - Worldwide system of long-range navigation using VLF radio transmission.
VMC - Visual Meterorological Conditions. See VFR, above.
Volmet - Continuous recorded broadcasts of weather conditions at selected airfields.
VOR - Very High Frequency Omnidirectional Range. A radio navigation aid operating in the 108-118 MHz band. A VOR ground station transmits a two-phase directional signal through 360ø. the aircraft's VOR receiver enables a pilot to identify his radial or bearing from/to the ground station. VOR is the most commonly used radio navigation aid in private flying. Increased accuracy is available in Doppler VORs (DVOR) which have replaced some VOR is the UK system. Also VORTAC, combined VOR and TACAN, and VOT, VOR test facility.
VP - Variable-Pitch (propeller), whose blade angle can be altered in flight either automatically or manually.
VRP - Visual Reporting Point. Landmarks used for position reporting by aircraft operating VFR. V/S - Vertical Speed/Vertical
VSI - Vertical Speed Indicator. One of the primary flight instruments showing rate of climb or descent. Also IVSI, instantaneous VSI.
VTOL - Vertical Takeoff and Landing
Wwake turbulence - wingtip vortices generated behind a wing producing lift. Behind a large heavy aircraft they can be powerful enough to roll or even break up a smaller aircraft.
WAT - Weight-And-Temperature.
w.e.f. - With Effect From
Wind Shear - Localised change in wind speed and/or direction over a short distance, resulting in a tearing or shearing effect, usually at low altitude, that can cause a sudden loss of airspeed with occasionally disastrous results if encountered when taking-off or landing.
WIP - Work In Progress.
WP(T) - Waypoint.
WT - Weight
Wx - Weather.
WX NIL - No significant weather, term used in Met reports.
XX-BAND - The frequency range between 8000 and 12500 MHz.xmsn - Transmission.
XPDR – Transponder
YYD - Yaw Damper
Zzero-fuel weight - Maximum permissible weight of an aircraft beyond which an additional load must be in the form of fuel.
zero-timed - Overhauling an aero-engine to 'service limits' (not the same `good as new' or factory remanufactured).
Zulu - Worldwide times of flight operations.